IIFT 2009 VARC | Previous Year IIFT Paper
A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.
The most important task is revitalizing the institution of independent directors. The independent directors of a company should be faithful fiduciaries protecting, the long-term interests of shareholders while ensuring fairness to employees, investor, customer, regulators, the government of the land and society. Unfortunately, very often, directors are chosen based of friendship and, sadly, pliability. Today, unfortunately, in the majority of cases, independence is only true on paper.
The need of the hour is to strengthen the independence of the board. We have to put in place stringent standards for the independence of directors. The board should adopt global standards for director-independence, and should disclose how each independent director meets these standards. It is desirable to have a comprehensive report showing the names of the company employees of fellow board members who are related to each director on the board. This report should accompany the annual report of all listed companies.
Another important step is to regularly assess the board members for performance. The assessment should focus on issues like competence, preparation, participation and contribution. Ideally, this evaluation should be performed by a third party. Underperforming directors should be allowed to leave at the end of their term in a gentle manner so that they do not lose face. Rather than being the rubber stamp of a company’s management policies, the board should become a true active partner of the management. For this, independent directors should be trained in their in their in roles and responsibilities. Independent directors should be trained on the business model and risk model of the company, on the governance practices, and the responsibilities of various committees of the board of the company. The board members should interact frequently with executives to understand operational issues. As part of the board meeting agenda, the independent directors should have a meeting among themselves without the management being present.
The independent board members should periodically review the performance of the company’s CEO, the internal directors and the senior management. This has to be based on clearly defined objective criteria, and these criteria should be known to the CEO and other executive directors well before the start of the evolution period. Moreover, there should be a clearly laid down procedure for communicating the board’s review to the CEO and his/her team of executive directors. Managerial remuneration should be based on such reviews.
Additionally, senior management compensation should be determined by the board in a manner that is fair to all stakeholders. We have to look at three important criteria in deciding managerial remuneration-fairness accountability and transparency. Fairness of compensation is determined by how employees and investors react to the compensation of the CEO. Accountability is enhanced by splitting the total compensation into a small fixed component and a large variable component. In other words, the CEO, other executive directors and the senior management should rise or fall with the fortunes of the company. The variable component should be linked to achieving the long-term objectives of the firm. Senior management compensation should be reviewed by the compensation committee of the board consisting of only the independent directors. This should be approved by the shareholders. It is important that no member of the internal management has a say in the compensation of the CEO, the internal board members or the senior management.
The SEBI regulations and the CII code of conduct have been very helpful in enhancing the level of accountability of independent directors. The independent directors should decide voluntarily how they want to contribute to the company. Their performance should decide voluntarily how they want to contribute to the company. Their performance should be appraised through a peer evaluation process. Ideally, the compensation committee should decide on the compensation of each independent director based on such a performance appraisal.
Auditing is another major area that needs reforms for effective corporate governance. An audit is the Independent examination of financial transactions of any entity to provide assurance to shareholder and other stakeholders that the financial statements are free of material misstatement. Auditors are qualified professionals appointed by the shareholders to report on the reliability of financial statements prepared by the management. Financial markets look to the auditor’s report for an independent opinion on the financial and risk situation of a company. We have to separate such auditing form other services. For a truly independent opinion, the auditing firm should not provide services that are perceived to be materially in conflict with the role of the auditor. These include investigations, consulting advice, sub contraction of operational activities normally undertaken by the management, due diligence on potential acquisitions or investments, advice on deal structuring, designing/implementing IT systems, bookkeeping, valuations and executive recruitment. Any departure from this practice should be approved by the audit committee in advance. Further, information on any such exceptions must be disclosed in the company’s quarterly and annual reports.
To ensure the integrity of the audit team, it is desirable to rotate auditor partners. The lead audit partner and the audit partner responsible for reviewing a company’s audit must be rotated at least once every three to five years. This eliminates the possibility of the lead auditor and the company management getting into the kind of close, cozy relationship that results in lower objectivity in audit opinions. Further, a registered auditor should not audit a chief accounting office was associated with the auditing firm. It is best that members of the audit teams are prohibited from taking up employment in the audited corporations for at least a year after they have stopped being members of the audit team.
A competent audit committee is essential to effectively oversee the financial accounting and reporting process. Hence, each member of the audit committee must be ‘financially literate’, further, at least one member of the audit committee, preferably the chairman, should be a financial expert-a person who has an understanding of financial statements and accounting rules, and has experience in auditing. The audit committee should establish procedures for the treatment of complaints received through anonymous submission by employees and whistleblowers. These complaints may be regarding questionable accounting or auditing issues, any harassment to an employee or any unethical practice in the company. The whistleblowers must be protected.
Any related-party transaction should require prior approval by the audit committee, the full board and the shareholders if it is material. Related parties are those that are able to control or exercise significant influence. These include; parent-subsidiary relationships; entities under common control; individuals who, through ownership, have significant influence over the enterprise and close members of their families; and dey management personnel.
Accounting standards provide a framework for preparation and presentation of financial statements and assist auditors in forming an opinion on the financial statements. However, today, accounting standards are issued by bodies comprising primarily of accountants. Therefore, accounting standards do not always keep pace with changes in the business environment. Hence, the accounting standards-setting body should include members drawn from the industry, the profession and regulatory bodies. This body should be independently funded.
Currently, an independent oversight of the accounting profession does not exist. Hence, an independent body should be constituted to oversee the functioning of auditors for Independence, the quality of audit and professional competence. This body should comprise a "majority of non-practicing accountants to ensure independent oversight. To avoid any bias, the chairman of this body should not have practiced as an accountant during the preceding five years. Auditors of all public companies must register with this body. It should enforce compliance with the laws by auditors and should mandate that auditors must maintain audit working papers for at least seven years.
To ensure the materiality of information, the CEO and CFO of the company should certify annual and quarterly reports. They should certify that the information in the reports fairly presents the financial condition and results of operations of the company, and that all material facts have been disclosed. Further, CEOs and CFOs should certify that they have established internal controls to ensure that all information relating to the operations of the company is freely available to the auditors and the audit committee. They should also certify that they have evaluated the effectiveness of these controls within ninety days prior to the report. False certifications by the CEO and CFO should be subject to significant criminal penalties (fines and imprisonment, if willful and knowing). If a company is required to restate its reports due to material non-compliance with the laws, the CEO and CFO must face severe punishment including loss of job and forfeiting bonuses or equity-based compensation received during the twelve months following the filing.
The problem with the independent directors has been that:
I. Their selection has been based upon their compatibility with the company management
II. There has been lack of proper training and development to improve their skill set
III. Their independent views have often come in conflict with the views of company management. This has hindered the company’s decision-making process
IV. Stringent standards for independent directors have been lacking
- A.
I and II only
- B.
I, II, and III only
- C.
II, II, and IV only
- D.
I, II and IV only
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
Statement I is mentioned in the first paragraph - “Unfortunately very often directors are chosen on basis of friendship and sadly pliability”.
Statement II is found in the third paragraph which states that independent directors need to be trained in their roles and responsibilities.
Statement III is incorrect. Rather, it is contrary to the view taken by the author.
Statement IV is mentioned in the second paragraph which states that stringent standards need to be put in place for the independence of directors.
Option 4 mentions Statements I, II and IV as correct statements.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
Which of the following, according to author, does not have an impact on effective corporate governance?
- A.
Increased role and importance of independent directors
- B.
Increased compensation to independent directors
- C.
Not hiring audit firms for other services
- D.
Stringent monitoring and control of related party transactions
Answer: Option B
Explanation :
The central theme of the passage is on the increased role and importance of independent directors - thus making option 1 incorrect.
Option 3 is incorrect because the passage states that audit firms should not be hired for other services in order to avoid conflict and enable a truly independent opinion.
Option 4 is incorrect because paragraph 10 states that all related-party transactions should require the approval of the audit committee, the full board and the shareholders to ensure effective governance.
Option 2 is correct because increased compensation to independent directors has no impact on effective corporate governance.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Workspace:
To improve the quality and reliability of the information reported in the financial statements:
I. Accounting standards should keep pace with the dynamic business environment
II. There should be a body of internal auditors to oversee the functioning of external auditors
III. Reports should be certified by key company officials
IV. Accounting standards should be set by a body comprising of practicing accountants only and this body should be funded from a corpus built up from the contributions made by the companies
- A.
I, and II
- B.
II, and III
- C.
I, and III
- D.
I, III, and IV
Answer: Option C
Explanation :
Statement II is incorrect as paragraph 12 states explicitly that an independent body should oversee the functioning of auditors.
Statement IV is completely out of context and is incorrect.
Statement I is correct as paragraph 11 states that accounting standards should keep pace with the dynamic business environment.
Statement III is correct as stated in paragraph 13. The CEO and CFO should certify annual and quarterly reports.
Hence the correct answer is option 3.
Workspace:
Which of the following may not help in improving in the accountability of management to the shareholders?
- A.
A third party assessment of the performance of independent directors
- B.
Rotation of audit partner
- C.
Increasing the fixed component in the salary structure of the management
- D.
Laying down a proper procedure for handling complaints regarding unethical practices
Answer: Option C
Explanation :
Option 1 would help to improve the accountability of management as states in the passage.
Option 2 would also help improve accountability as the passage recommends rotating auditing partners.
Option 4 helps improve accountability as is mentioned in paragraph 9.
Option 3 will not help in improving accountability of management to shareholders as their vested interests may cause them to practise unfair tactics.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
Workspace:
The author of the passage does not advocate:
- A.
Increased activism of independent directors
- B.
Measures to improve the independence of auditors
- C.
Framing the accounting standards in the light of changing business conditions
- D.
Active intervention by the regulators in the day-to-day functioning of the company
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
Option 1 is incorrect and is advocated throughout the passage.
Option 2 is incorrect and is also the focus of the passage.
Option 3 is incorrect and is stated explicitly in paragraphs 11 and 12.
Option 4 is correct as it is nowhere mentioned in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.
I suggest that the essential character of the Trade Cycle and, especially, the regularity of time-sequence and of duration which justifies us in calling it a cycle, is mainly due to the way in which the marginal efficiency of capital fluctuates. The Trade Cycle is best regarded, I think, as being occasioned by a cyclical change in the marginal efficiency of capital, though complicated and often aggravated by associated changes in the other significant short period variables of the economic system.
By a cyclical movement we mean that as the system progresses in, e.g. the upward direction, the forces propelling it upwards at first gather force and have a cumulative effect on one another but gradually lose their strength until at a certain point they tend to be replaced by forces operating in the opposite direction; which in turn gather force for a time and accentuate one another, until they too, having reached their maximum development, wane and give place to their opposite. We do not, however, merely mean by a cyclical movement that upward and downward tendencies, once started, do not persist for ever in the same direction but are ultimately reversed. We mean also that there is some recognizable degree of regularity in the time-sequence and duration of the upward and downward movements. There is, however, another characteristic of what we call the Trade Cycle which our explanation must cover if it is to be adequate; namely, the phenomenon of the ‘crisis’ the fact that the substitution of a downward for an upward tendency often takes place suddenly and violently, whereas there is, as a rule, no such sharp turning-point when an upward is substituted for a downward tendency. Any fluctuation in investment not offset by a corresponding change in the propensity to consume will, of course, result in a fluctuation in employment. Since, therefore, the volume of investment is subject to highly complex influences, it is highly improbable that all fluctuations either in investment itself or in the marginal efficiency of capital will be of a cyclical character.
We have seen above that the marginal efficiency of capital depends, not only on the existing abundance or scarcity of capital-goods and the current cost of production of capital-goods, but also on current expectations as to the future yield of capital-goods. In the case of durable assets it is, therefore, natural and reasonable that expectations of the future should play a dominant part in determining the scale on which new investment is deemed advisable. But, as we have seen, the basis for such expectations is very precarious. Being based on shifting and unreliable evidence, they are subject to sudden and violent changes. Now, we have been accustomed in explaining the ‘crisis’ to lay stress on the rising tendency of the rate of interest under the influence of the increased demand for money both for trade and speculative purposes. At times this factor may certainly play an aggravating and, occasionally perhaps, an initiating part. But I suggest that a more typical, and often the predominant, explanation of the crisis is, not primarily a rise in the rate of interest, but a sudden collapse in the marginal efficiency of capital. The later stages of the boom are characterized by optimistic expectations as to the future yield of capital goods sufficiently strong to offset their growing abundance and their rising costs of production and, probably, a rise in the rate of interest also. It is of the nature of organized investment markets, under the influence of purchasers largely ignorant of what they are buying and of speculators who are more concerned with forecasting the next shift of market sentiment than with a reasonable estimate of the future yield of capital-assets, that, when disillusion falls upon an over-optimistic and over-bought market, it should fall with sudden and even catastrophic force. Moreover, the dismay and uncertainty as to the future which accompanies a collapse in the marginal efficiency of capital naturally precipitates a sharp increase in liquidity-preference and hence a rise in the rate of interest. Thus the fact that a collapse in the marginal efficiency of capital tends to be associated with a rise in the rate of interest may seriously aggravate the decline in investment. But the essence of the situation is to be found, nevertheless, in the collapse in the marginal efficiency of capital, particularly in the case of those types of capital which have been contributing most to the previous phase of heavy new investment. Liquidity preference, except those manifestations of it which are associated with increasing trade and speculation, does not increase until after the collapse in the marginal efficiency of capital. It is this, indeed, which renders the slump so intractable.
Which of the following does not describe the features of cyclical movement?
- A.
There is a cyclical change in the marginal efficiency of capital
- B.
The movement once starts in upward or downward direction does not get reversed
- C.
The time pattern and the duration of economic movements are recognizable
- D.
It is caused by the economic force working in opposite direction
Answer: Option B
Explanation :
Option 1 is in the first paragraph - “The trade cycle is best regarded by a cyclic change in the marginal efficiency of capital”.
Option 3 is in the second paragraph - “There is some recognizable degree of regularity in the time sequence and duration of upward and downward movements”.
Option 4 is incorrect because it is stated in paragraph 2 in the definition of a cyclic movement that the cyclical movement is caused by the economic forces working in opposite direction.
Option 2 is correct as it is contradictory to the information provided in paragraph 2.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Workspace:
Marginal efficiency of the capital does not depend on which of following factors?
- A.
Demand and supply of capital goods
- B.
Cost of production of capital goods
- C.
Expectations regarding future return from capital goods
- D.
Availability of capital
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
The first few lines of paragraph 3 state that marginal efficiency of capital depends on existing abundance or scarcity of capital goods, the cost of production of capital goods and the current expectation as to the future yield of capital goods.
As a result, options 1, 2and 3are eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
Which of the following explains the phenomenon of crisis?
I. A sudden collapse in the marginal efficiency of capital
II. Increase in the rate of interest causing the decline in investments
III. A sudden and violent substitution of upward movement by a downward tendency
IV. Decline in the liquidity preference of the investors
- A.
I & II
- B.
I, II, and III
- C.
I, II, and IV
- D.
II, III, and IV
Answer: Option B
Explanation :
Statements I, II and III are correct as they are explicitly mentioned in the explanation of a crisis in paragraph 2.
Statement IV is incorrect as it is completely out of context with regards to the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Workspace:
A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.
The broad scientific understanding today is that our planet is experiencing a warming trend over and above natural and normal variations that is almost certainly due to human activities associated with large-scale manufacturing. The process began in the late 1700s with the Industrial Revolution, when manual labor, horsepower, and water power began to be replaced by or enhanced by machines. This revolution, over time, shifted Britain, Europe, and eventually North America from largely agricultural and trading societies to manufacturing ones, relying on machinery and engines rather than tools and animals.
The Industrial Revolution was at heart a revolution in the use of energy and power. Its beginning is usually dated to the advent of the steam engine, which was based on the conversion of chemical energy in wood or coal to thermal energy and then to mechanical work primarily the powering of industrial machinery and steam locomotives. Coal eventually supplanted wood because, pound for pound, coal contains twice as much energy as wood (measured in BTUs, or British thermal units, per pound) and because its use helped to save what was left of the world's temperate forests. Coal was used to produce heat that went directly into industrial processes, including metallurgy, and to warm buildings, as well as to power steam engines. When crude oil came along in the mid- 1800s, still a couple of decades before electricity, it was burned, in the form of kerosene, in lamps to make light replacing whale oil. It was also used to provide heat for buildings and in manufacturing processes, and as a fuel for engines used in industry and propulsion.
In short, one can say that the main forms in which humans need and use energy are for light, heat, mechanical work and motive power, and electricity which can be used to provide any of the other three, as well as to do things that none of those three can do, such as electronic communications and information processing. Since the Industrial Revolution, all these energy functions have been powered primarily, but not exclusively, by fossil fuels that emit carbon dioxide (CO2),
To put it another way, the Industrial Revolution gave a whole new prominence to what Rochelle Lefkowitz, president of Pro-Media Communications and an energy buff, calls "fuels from hell" - coal, oil, and natural gas. All these fuels from hell come from underground, are exhaustible, and emit CO2 and other pollutants when they are burned for transportation, heating, and industrial use. These fuels are in contrast to what Lefkowitz calls "fuels from heaven" -wind, hydroelectric, tidal, biomass, and solar power. These all come from above ground, are endlessly renewable, and produce no harmful emissions.
Meanwhile, industrialization promoted urbanization, and urbanization eventually gave birth to suburbanization. This trend, which was repeated across America, nurtured the development of the American car culture, the building of a national highway system, and a mushrooming of suburbs around American cities, which rewove the fabric of American life. Many other developed and developing countries followed the American model, with all its upsides and downsides. The result is that today we have suburbs and ribbons of highways that run in, out, and around not only America s major cities, but China's, India's, and South America's as well. And as these urban areas attract more people, the sprawl extends in every direction.
All the coal, oil, and natural gas inputs for this new economic model seemed relatively cheap, relatively inexhaustible, and relatively harmless-or at least relatively easy to clean up afterward. So there wasn't much to stop the juggernaut of more people and more development and more concrete and more buildings and more cars and more coal, oil, and gas needed to build and power them. Summing it all up, Andy Karsner, the Department of Energy's assistant secretary for energy efficiency and renewable energy, once said to me: "We built a really inefficient environment with the greatest efficiency ever known to man."
Beginning in the second half of the twentieth century, a scientific understanding began to emerge that an excessive accumulation of largely invisible pollutants-called greenhouse gases - was affecting the climate. The buildup of these greenhouse gases had been under way since the start of the Industrial Revolution in a place we could not see and in a form we could not touch or smell. These greenhouse gases, primarily carbon dioxide emitted from human industrial, residential, and transportation sources, were not piling up along roadsides or in rivers, in cans or empty bottles, but, rather, above our heads, in the earth's atmosphere. If the earth's atmosphere was like a blanket that helped to regulate the planet's temperature, the CO2 buildup was having the effect of thickening that blanket and making the globe warmer.
Those bags of CO2 from our cars float up and stay in the atmosphere, along with bags of CO2 from power plants burning coal, oil, and gas, and bags of CO2 released from the burning and clearing of forests, which releases all the carbon stored in trees, plants, and soil. In fact, many people don't realize that deforestation in places like Indonesia and Brazil is responsible for more CO2 than all the world's cars, trucks, planes, ships, and trains combined - that is, about 20 percent of all global emissions. And when we're not tossing bags of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, we're throwing up other greenhouse gases, like methane (CH4) released from rice farming, petroleum drilling, coal mining, animal defecation, solid waste landfill sites, and yes, even from cattle belching.
Cattle belching? That's right-the striking thing about greenhouse gases is the diversity of sources that emit them. A herd of cattle belching can be worse than a highway full of Hummers. Livestock gas is very high in methane, which, like CO2, is colorless and odorless. And like CO2, methane is one of those greenhouse gases that, once released into the atmosphere, also absorb heat radiating from the earth's surface. "Molecule for molecule, methane's heat-trapping power in the atmosphere is twenty-one times stronger than carbon dioxide, the most abundant greenhouse gas.." reported Science World (January 21, 2002). “With 1.3 billion cows belching almost constantly around the world (100 million in the United States alone), it's no surprise that methane released by livestock is one of the chief global sources of the gas, according to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency ... 'It's part of their normal digestion process,' says Tom Wirth of the EPA. 'When they chew their cud, they regurgitate [spit up] some food to rechew it, and all this gas comes out.' The average cow expels 600 liters of methane a day, climate researchers report."
What is the precise scientific relationship between these expanded greenhouse gas emissions and global warming? Experts at the Pew Center on Climate Change offer a handy summary in their report "Climate Change 101. " Global average temperatures, notes the Pew study, "have experienced natural shifts throughout human history. For example; the climate of the Northern Hemisphere varied from a relatively warm period between the eleventh and fifteenth centuries to a period of cooler temperatures between the seventeenth century and the middle of the nineteenth century. However, scientists studying the rapid rise in global temperatures during the late twentieth century say that natural variability cannot account for what is happening now." The new factor is the human factor-our vastly increased emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases from the burning of fossil fuels such as coal and oil as well as from deforestation, large-scale cattle-grazing, agriculture, and industrialization.
“Scientists refer to what has been happening in the earth’s atmosphere over the past century as the ‘enhanced greenhouse effect’”, notes the Pew study. By pumping man-made greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, humans are altering the process by which naturally occurring greenhouse gases, because of their unique molecular structure, trap the sun’s heat near the earth’s surface before that heat radiates back into space.
"The greenhouse effect keeps the earth warm and habitable; without it, the earth's surface would be about 60 degrees Fahrenheit colder on average. Since the average temperature of the earth is about 45 degrees Fahrenheit, the natural greenhouse effect is clearly a good thing. But the enhanced greenhouse effect means even more of the sun's heat is trapped, causing global temperatures to rise. Among the many scientific studies providing clear evidence that an enhanced greenhouse effect is under way was a 2005 report from NASA's Goddard Institute for Space Studies. Using satellites, data from buoys, and computer models to study the earth's oceans, scientists concluded that more energy is being absorbed from the sun than is emitted back to space, throwing the earth's energy out of balance and warming the globe."
Which of the following statements is correct?
I. Greenhouse gases are responsible for global warming. They should be eliminated to save the planet
II. CO2 is the most dangerous of the greenhouse gases. Reduction in the release of CO2 would surely bring down the temperature
III. The greenhouse effect could be traced back to the industrial revolution. But the current development and the patterns of life have enhanced their emissions
IV. Deforestation has been one of the biggest factors contributing to the emission of greenhouse gases
- A.
I and III
- B.
II and III
- C.
II, III, and IV
- D.
III and IV
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
Greenhouse gases are one reason for global warming. However, statement I goes quite beyond the scope of the passage, eliminating it.
Statement II is incorrect as methane is twenty one times stronger in heat trapping than CO2 (Paragraph eight).
Statement III is stated in the passage.
Statement IV is stated in paragraph 9 as one of the biggest factors contributing to the emission of green house gases.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
- A.
Natural and controlled greenhouse effect is good for earth
- B.
As a measure to check global warming, prevention of destruction of forests needs to be given priority over reduction in fuel emission
- C.
Greenhouse gases trap the sun’s heat from radiating back into the space making the earth surface warmer
- D.
It is for the first time in human evolution that the global temperatures have started to witness a shift
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
Option 1 is stated in the entire passage.
Option 2 is implied from the statement in the passage that deforestation is responsible for more CO2 than fuel emissions (Paragraph 7).
Option 3 is mentioned in the last paragraph of the passage.
Option 4 is an incorrect statement since the ninth paragraph talks about shift in global temperature seen from the 11th to the 20th century.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
Increasing warming of earth has been due to:
I. Increased manual intervention in the manufacturing process
II. The fallout of mechanization of production
III. Industrial revolution
IV. Over reliance on non- replenishible energy sources
- A.
I, II, and IV
- B.
I, III and IV
- C.
I, II, III, and IV
- D.
II, III, and IV
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
Statement I is incorrect because the industrial revolution decreased manual intervention rather than increased it (Paragraph 1).
Statement II is stated throughout the passage as one of the leading causes of global warming. Mechanization of production brought about by the industrial revolution is said to have released green house gases into the environment thereby being responsible for the increasing warming of the earth.
Statement III is stated in the passage as a primary reason for the increasing warming of the earth.
Statement IV is also stated in the third paragraph where Rochelle Lofkowitz distinguishes between ‘fuels from hell’ and ‘fuels from heaven’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
Which of the following according to the passage are the features of “fuels from heaven”?
I. Replenishability
II. Storability
III. Cost-effectiveness
IV. Harmlessness
- A.
I and II
- B.
II and III
- C.
III, and IV
- D.
I and IV
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
“Fuels from heaven” are said to be those which come from above the ground, are endlessly renewable and produce no harmful emissions.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.
"All raw sugar comes to us this way. You see, it is about the color of maple or brown sugar, but it is not nearly so pure, for it has a great deal of dirt mixed with it when we first get it."
"Where does it come from?" inquired Bob.
"Largely from the plantations of Cuba and Porto Rico. Toward the end of the year we also get raw sugar from Java, and by the time this is refined and ready for the market the new crop from the West Indies comes along. In addition to this we get consignments from the Philippine Islands, the Hawaiian Islands, South America, Formosa, and Egypt. I suppose it is quite unnecessary to tell you young men anything of how the cane is grown; of course you know all that."
"I don't believe we do, except in a general way," Bob admitted honestly. "I am ashamed to be so green about a thing at which Dad has been working for years. I don't know why I never asked about it before. I guess I never was interested. I simply took it for granted."
"That's the way with most of us," was the superintendent's kindly answer. "We accept many things in the world without actually knowing much about them, and it is not until something brings our ignorance before us that we take the pains to focus our attention and learn about them. So do not be ashamed that you do not know about sugar raising; I didn't when I was your age. Suppose, then, I give you a little idea of what happens before this raw sugar can come to us."
"I wish you would," exclaimed both boys in a breath.
"Probably in your school geographies you have seen pictures of sugar-cane and know that it is a tall perennial not unlike our Indian corn in appearance; it has broad, flat leaves that sometimes measure as many as three feet in length, and often the stalk itself is twenty feet high. This stalk is jointed like a bamboo pole, the joints being about three inches apart near the roots and increasing in distance the higher one gets from the ground."
"How do they plant it?" Bob asked.
"It can be planted from seed, but this method takes much time and patience; the usual way is to plant it from cuttings, or slips. The first growth from these cuttings is called plant cane; after these are taken off the roots send out ratoons or shoots from which the crop of one or two years, and sometimes longer, is taken. If the soil is not rich and moist replanting is more frequently necessary and in places like Louisiana, where there is annual frost, planting must be done each year. When the cane is ripe it is cut and brought from the field to a central sugar mill, where heavy iron rollers crush from it all the juice. This liquid drips through into troughs from which it is carried to evaporators where the water portion of the sap is eliminated and the juice left; you would be surprised if you were to see this liquid. It looks like nothing so much as the soapy, bluish-gray dish-water that is left in the pan after the dishes have been washed."
"A tempting picture!" Van exclaimed.
"I know it. Sugar isn't very attractive during its process of preparation," agreed Mr. Hennessey. "The sweet liquid left after the water has been extracted is then poured into vacuum pans to be boiled until the crystals form in it, after which it is put into whirling machines, called centrifugal machines that separate the dry sugar from the syrup with which it is mixed. This syrup is later boiled into molasses. The sugar is then dried and packed in these burlap sacks such as you see here, or in hogsheads, and shipped to refineries to be cleansed and whitened."
"Isn't any of the sugar refined in the places where it grows?" queried Bob.
"Practically none. Large refining plants are too expensive to be erected everywhere; it therefore seems better that they should be built in our large cities, where the shipping facilities are good not only for receiving sugar in its raw state but for distributing it after it has been refined and is ready for sale. Here, too, machinery can more easily be bought and the business handled with less difficulty."
Which one of the following is not a essential condition for setting up sugar refining plants?
- A.
Facilities for transportation of machinery
- B.
Facilities for import of raw material
- C.
Facilities for transportation of finished products
- D.
Proximity to the raw material sources
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
The last paragraph states that sugar refining plants can be set up in large cities which provide- good shipping facilities for receiving raw material and transporting the finished product and easy transport of machinery.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
Which of the following is the correct sequence of sugar preparation process?
- A.
Cutting → Crushing → Evaporation → Boiling → Whirling.
- B.
Boiling → Crushing → Evaporation → Whirling → Cutting.
- C.
Cutting → Boiling → Evaporation → Crushing → Whirling.
- D.
Whirling → Crushing → Boiling → Evaporation → Cutting.
Answer: Option A
Explanation :
The correct sequence of sugar preparation is explained in the last three paragraphs of the passage – Cutting → Crushing → Evaporation → Boiling → Whirling.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Workspace:
Which of the following statements, as per the paragraph, is incorrect?
- A.
Sugar in its raw from is brownish in colour due to the presence of dirt
- B.
After evaporation, cane juice looks bluish – gray in colour
- C.
Molasses is obtained as a bye-product from the process of sugar production
- D.
Cane plantation and sugar production process is widely and equally spread across the countries.
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
Option 1 is mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage.
Option 2 is mentioned in “It looks like nothing so much as the soapy bluish-gray dish water that is left in the pan after the dishes have been washed”.
Option 3 is stated in the penultimate paragraph of the passage which states that the process of whirling separates the dry sugar from the syrup. The syrup is later boiled into molasses. This eliminates option 3.
Option 4 has no supporting data in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
Each question has a sentence that has an underlined part. Choose the option which rephrases the underlined part in the most appropriate manner in terms of grammar and usage.
When I first became brand manager, we were spending most of our advertising budget to promote our products in the winter. It had worked in North America and Europe, where people caught colds mainly in that season. Our monthly volume data suggested however stubbornly we were shipping a lot of VapoRub between July and September, the hot monsoon season.
- A.
Our monthly volume data suggested however that stubbornly
- B.
However, our monthly volume data stubbornly suggested that
- C.
However, our volume data suggested stubbornly that monthly
- D.
Stubbornly speaks our volume data on a monthly basis, however that
Answer: Option B
Explanation :
Option 1 is incorrect because the sentence should begin with the word, “however” since a contrasting piece of information is being conveyed. Secondly, option 1 contains no punctuation necessary to make the sentence coherent.
Option 3 is incorrect because the word “monthly” comes at the end of the sentence. It should instead come before “volume data”. It is a case of faulty construction and makes the sentence incoherent.
Option 4 is incorrect since the adverb, “however” should begin the sentence.
Option 2 begins with “however” and is logically coherent in all respects.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Workspace:
Each question has a sentence that has an underlined part. Choose the option which rephrases the underlined part in the most appropriate manner in terms of grammar and usage.
The growth rate of companies in several sectors like food, personal care, automobiles, banking and retail in the developed world are flattening. These companies for maintaining their growth rates and margins are looking upon the emerging market in Asia and Latin America.
- A.
These companies for maintaining their growth rates and margins are looking upon the emerging markets in Asia and Latin America.
- B.
To maintain their growth rates and margins these companies look at the emerging markets in Asia and Latin America.
- C.
The emerging markets of Asia and Latin America are looked at by these companies to maintain their growth rates and margins
- D.
These companies are looking at the emerging markets in Asia and Latin America for maintaining their growth rates and margins.
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
Option 1 misses out on the insertion of commas after ‘companies’ and ‘margins’. Secondly, it mentions, ‘looking upon’ which should ideally be ‘looking at’.
Option 2 is incorrect because of the word ‘look’. The entire paragraph is in simple present tense. Therefore ‘look’ should be replaced by ‘are looking.’
Option 3 is incorrect. ‘Looked at,’ should be ‘being looked at’. The conjunction ‘being’ is missing making the sentence incorrect.
Option 4 is grammatically consistent without any errors.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
Each question has a sentence that has an underlined part. Choose the option which rephrases the underlined part in the most appropriate manner in terms of grammar and usage.
People who do good work to the corporation wherever they are whatever they do will be assets to the valued corporation.
- A.
good work to the corporation wherever they are whatever they do will be assets to the valued corporation
- B.
good work – wherever they are, whatever they do – will be valued assets to the corporation
- C.
whatever good they do the corporation, wherever they are will be valued assets
- D.
good to the corporation whatever work they do wherever they are will be valued assets
Answer: Option B
Explanation :
Option 1 has a prepositional error. ‘To the corporation’ should be replaced by ‘for the corporation’. Secondly, commas should be inserted wherever there is a change in thought.
Option 3 is incorrect. The phrase ‘wherever they are’ should come before ‘whatever good they do’. It is a case of faulty construction.
Option 4 is also an error in faulty construction as ‘wherever they are’ should come before ‘whatever they do’ in order to make the sentence grammatically consistent.
Option 2 has the correct punctuation marks.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Workspace:
Each question has a sentence that has an underlined part. Choose the option which rephrases the underlined part in the most appropriate manner in terms of grammar and usage.
From what landscapes or flowerbeds would future painters draw their inspiration? Would move poets to craft their symphonies, composers to contemplate the meaning of God, and philosophers write their sonnets.
- A.
painters draw their inspiration? Would move poets to craft their symphonies, composers to contemplate the meaning of God, and philosophers write their sonnets.
- B.
painters draw their inspiration? Would move poets to write their sonnets, composers to craft their symphonies and philosophers to contemplate the meaning of God
- C.
philosophers draw their inspiration? Would move poets to write their sonnets, composers to craft their symphonies, and painters to contemplate the meaning of God
- D.
philosophers to contemplate the meaning of God? Would move painters to draw their inspiration, composers to write their sonnets, and poets to craft their symphonies?
Answer: Option B
Explanation :
Option 1 is incorrect. Poets do not craft symphonies, composers do.
Option 3 is incorrect. Painters do not contemplate the meaning of God, philosophers do.
Option 4 is incorrect. Composers do not write sonnets, poets do.
Option 2 has the correct combinations.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Workspace:
Each question has a sentence that has an underlined part. Choose the option which rephrases the underlined part in the most appropriate manner in terms of grammar and usage.
Car sales in the country rose at an annualized rate of 7.8% in June, helped by a spate of new models and falling borrowing costs bringing new buyers back.
- A.
spate of new models and falling borrowing costs bringing new buyers back
- B.
luring of new models and falling borrowing costs bringing new buyers back
- C.
bringing of new models back, spate in borrowing costs, and falling new buyers
- D.
bringing back the borrowing costs, falling in new models, and spate in new models.
Answer: Option A
Explanation :
Option 2 is incorrect. ‘Luring of new models’ is awkward usage and changes the meaning of the sentence. ‘Spate’ of new models gives a more coherent meaning as in ‘a great number’ of new models.
Option 3 is logically incorrect. ‘Bringing of new models back’ is a contradiction in itself. Secondly, the borrowing costs were falling not rising and thirdly, the number of new buyers was not falling, but increasing.
Option 4 is logically incorrect. ‘Falling in new models and spate in new models’ makes no logical sense and contradicts itself. Secondly, ‘bringing back the borrowing costs’ is also incorrect. It should read, ‘falling borrowing costs’.
Ideas in option 1 are coherent.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Workspace:
In each question, certain words are highlighted in the sentences. Mark the option which is synonymous to the highlighted word or words.
The book did not get much acclaim because of its pedantic style of writing.
- A.
radical
- B.
dogmatic
- C.
esoteric
- D.
applicative
Answer: Option C
Explanation :
“Pedantic” means “characterized by a narrow concern for book learning , formal rules or minute details.”
‘Radical’ means 1) ‘of or going to the root or origin; fundamental’ and 2) ‘extreme, especially as regards change from accepted or traditional norms.’
‘Dogmatic’ means ‘characterized by an authoritative, arrogant assertion of unproved or unprovable principles.’
‘Esoteric’ means ‘understood by or meant for only the select few who have special knowledge or interest.’
‘Applicative’ means ‘usable or capable of being used’.
From the above meanings ‘Esoteric’ comes closest to ‘Pedantic’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
Workspace:
In each question, certain words are highlighted in the sentences. Mark the option which is synonymous to the highlighted word or words.
The policy announcement was made to the much chagrin of the farmers.
- A.
euphoria
- B.
placation
- C.
glee
- D.
mortification
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
“Chagrin” means “a feeling of annoyance or embarrassment caused by failure, disappointment, or a disconcerting event.”
‘Euphoria’ means ‘a feeling of great happiness or well being’.
‘Placation’ means ‘to appease or pacify.’
‘Glee’ means ‘great delight, joy.’
‘Mortification’ means ‘a feeling of shame, humiliation or wounded pride’.
From the above meanings, ‘mortification’ is the most suitable synonym for ‘chagrin’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
In each question, certain words are highlighted in the sentences. Mark the option which is synonymous to the highlighted word or words.
The leader summoned the group and told that the time has come to act and not genuflect.
- A.
grovel
- B.
procrastinate
- C.
renounce
- D.
incriminate
Answer: Option A
Explanation :
“Genuflect” means ‘to express a servile attitude’.
‘Grovel’ means ‘to humble oneself in an abject manner, utter servility’.
‘Procrastinate’ means ‘to delay or defer action’.
‘Renounce’ means ‘to give up or put aside voluntarily’.
‘Incriminate’ means ‘to accuse of a crime or other wrongful act’.
From the above meanings, ‘Grovel’ comes closest in meaning to ‘Genuflect.’
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Workspace:
In each question, certain words are highlighted in the sentences. Mark the option which is synonymous to the highlighted word or words.
The stentorian honks of the marching fleet could be heard for miles.
- A.
rhythmic
- B.
euphonious
- C.
blaring
- D.
subdues
Answer: Option C
Explanation :
“Stentorian” means ‘a very loud or powerful sound.’
‘Rhythmic’ means ‘to be in cadence.’
‘Euphonious’ means ‘pleasant in sound’.
‘Blaring’ means ‘a loud, raucous noise’.
‘Subdued’ means ‘quiet, inhibited, repressed’.
From the above meanings, ‘Blaring’ is the most suitable synonym for the word “Stentorian”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
Workspace:
In each question, certain words are highlighted in the sentences. Mark the option which is synonymous to the highlighted word or words.
Noticing the behavior of the audience in the amphitheater the performer was more bemused than bitter.
- A.
amused
- B.
bewildered
- C.
enlightened
- D.
enthused
Answer: Option B
Explanation :
“Bemused” means ‘bewildered or confused’.
‘Amused’ means ‘to cause mirth, laughter or the like’.
‘Bewildered’ means ‘completely puzzled or confused, perplexed’.
‘Enlightened’ means ‘to give spiritual or intellectual insight to’.
‘Enthused’ means ‘to express enthusiasm’.
From the above meanings, ‘Bewildered’ is the most suitable synonym for “Bemused”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Workspace:
In each of the questions below, certain words are highlighted. Mark the option that is the most opposite in meaning to the highlighted word(s).
The arguments put forth by the speaker were rather specious, but somehow he got away with them.
- A.
fallacious
- B.
unfeigned
- C.
obscure
- D.
pernicious
Answer: Option B
Explanation :
“Specious” means ‘having the ring of truth but actually fallacious’.
‘Fallacious’ means ‘deceptive or misleading’.
‘Unfeigned’ means ‘sincere or genuine’.
‘Obscure’ means ‘not clear, ambiguous, vague’.
‘Pernicious’ means ‘ruinous or injurious’.
From the above meanings, ‘Unfeigned’ is the most suitable antonym for the word “Specious”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Workspace:
In each of the questions below, certain words are highlighted. Mark the option that is the most opposite in meaning to the highlighted word(s).
The trends suggest that most of the new members got themselves deregistered within 7 – 10 days of their joining due to the exacting instructor.
- A.
insouciant
- B.
discourteous
- C.
grievous
- D.
fastidious
Answer: Option A
Explanation :
“Exacting” means ‘rigid or severe in demands or requirements’.
‘Insouciant’ means ‘carefree, marked by blithe unconcern’.
‘Discourteous’ means ‘impolite, uncivil, rude’.
‘Grievous’ means ‘causing great sorrow or great pain or suffering’.
‘Fastidious’ means ‘to be excessively particular, critical or demanding’.
From the above meanings, ‘insouciant’ is the most suitable antonym for the word “exacting.”
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Workspace:
In each of the questions below, certain words are highlighted. Mark the option that is the most opposite in meaning to the highlighted word(s).
The congregation was awestruck at the sight of the levitating saint.
- A.
gravitating
- B.
enchanting
- C.
captivating
- D.
vacillating
Answer: Option A
Explanation :
“Levitating” means ‘to be rising or floating in the air’.
‘Gravitating’ means ‘to sink or fall.’
‘Enchanting’ means ‘charming, captivating’.
‘Captivating’ means ‘to attract or hold the attention of, as by beauty, to enchant’.
‘Vacillating’ means ‘wavering, indecisive, oscillating, fluctuating’.
From the above meanings, ‘Gravitating’ is the most suitable antonym for the word “Levitating”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Workspace:
In each of the questions below, certain words are highlighted. Mark the option that is the most opposite in meaning to the highlighted word(s).
By the time she could realize the gravity of the situation she found herself ensnared in the labyrinth of accusations.
- A.
seized
- B.
enmeshed
- C.
intrigued
- D.
released
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
“Ensnared” means ‘to take or catch in, to capture’.
‘Seized’ means ‘to take hold of suddenly or forcibly’.
‘Enmeshed’ means ‘to catch as in a net, entangle’.
‘Intrigued’ means ‘to arouse the interest or curiosity of.’
‘Released’ means ‘to free from confinement, bondage or obligation’.
From the above meanings, ‘Released’ is the most suitable antonym for the word “Ensnared”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace:
In each of the questions below, certain words are highlighted. Mark the option that is the most opposite in meaning to the highlighted word(s).
The sub-prime crisis has pushed millions of people in the quagmire of financial indebtedness.
- A.
predicament
- B.
swamp
- C.
tranquility
- D.
impasse
Answer: Option C
Explanation :
“Quagmire” means ‘a situation from which extrication is very difficult.’
‘Predicament’ means ‘an unpleasantly difficult or dangerous situation’.
‘Swamp’ in its verb form means ‘to overwhelm, especially to overwhelm with an excess of something’.
‘Tranquility’ means ‘calmness, peacefulness, serenity.’
‘Impasse’ means ‘a position or situation from which there is no escape’.
‘Tranquility’ is a suitable antonym for “Quagmire”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
Workspace:
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.
The organization takes its cue from the person on the top. I always told our business leaders their personal____ determined their organization’s ___.
- A.
serendipity; faux pas
- B.
predilection; despair
- C.
intensity; success
- D.
oddity; conformity
Answer: Option C
Explanation :
In the first blank ‘serendipity’ meaning ‘to be fortunate by chance’ is an odd word to use. So, is ‘oddity’.
‘Predilection’ or ‘intensity’ are better choices for the first blank as ‘a leader’s personal predilection’ or ‘a leader’s personal intensity’ makes more sense.
The second blank can only meaningfully be filled with a word like success, survival or their synonyms.
The word ‘faux pas’ meaning a social blunder is a meaningless word to use for this blank contextually. Therefore, we can eliminate option A.
‘Despair’ is logically inconsistent for the second blank. Therefore, we can eliminate option B.
We are left with ‘success’ and ‘conformity’.
A leader’s personal oddity determined his organisation’s conformity is meaningless and the two words contradict each other. Therefore, we can eliminate option D.
A leader’s personal ‘intensity’ determines the organisation’s ‘success’ is perfectly logical.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
Workspace:
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.
The Himalayas ran from east to west and cut off the cold winds from the north. This allowed agriculture to proper and _____ wealth, but it also _____ barbarian invaders from the north.
- A.
attracted; dissipated
- B.
created; attracted
- C.
created; restricted
- D.
attracted; evicted
Answer: Option C
Explanation :
In option 1 the word for the second blank would make sense only if the main statement read, “This ‘not only’ allowed agriculture…” Without the connecting words ‘not only’, the word ‘dissipated’ for the second blank contradicts the passage. The same rationale applies to the second blank in option C which is ‘restricted’. This word, too will contradict the passage. Therefore, options 1 and 3 can be eliminated.
‘Evicted for the second blank in option 4 makes no sense in the context of the main statement. For the word to be meaningful, the ‘not only’ connector must once again apply. Therefore, option 4 can be eliminated.
Both the words in option 2 fit well in the given context.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Workspace:
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.
Our ______diversity may also be of some value. Because we have always learned to live with pluralism, it is possible that we may be better prepared to ______ the diversity of global economy.
- A.
stupefying; negotiate
- B.
plural; alleviate
- C.
variegated; annihilate
- D.
dreary; exasperate
Answer: Option A
Explanation :
For the second blank, ‘alleviate’, ‘annihilate’ as well as ‘exasperate’ will not fit in logically because the diversity of the global economy is being discussed. Therefore, we can eliminate options 2, 3 and 4.
For the first blank the two words in the options which may be logically sound to insert are ‘stupefying’ and ‘variegated’. ‘Stupefying’ means ‘astounding or astonishing,’ while‘ variegated’ means ‘varied or diverse’ which would be a needless repetition with the word “diversity” present immediately after the blank. Secondly, the second blank for variegated is ‘annihilate’ which as explained above is logically unsound.
Both the words in option 1 fit in the blanks.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Workspace:
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.
My inward petition was instantly______. First, a delightful cold wave descended over my back and under my feet, _________ all discomfort.
- A.
acknowledged; banishing
- B.
repudiated; infuriating
- C.
acceded; exacerbating
- D.
decimated; assuaging
Answer: Option A
Explanation :
For the second blank only ‘banishing’ or ‘assuaging’ would make logical sense.
‘Exacerbating’ is logically contradictory while ‘infuriating’ is logically and grammatically incorrect. Therefore, we can eliminate options 2 and 3.
However, for the first blank, ‘acknowledged’ is a much better logical fit than ‘decimated’ as ‘Decimated’ contradicts the main statement. Therefore, option 1 scores over option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Workspace:
Each of the questions below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.
I. As a retention strategy, the company has issued many schemes including ESOPs.
II. Given the track record and success of our employees, other companies often look to us as hunting ground for talent.
III. The growth of the Indian economy has led to an increased requirement for talented managerial personnel and we believe that the talented manpower is our key strength.
IV. Further, in order to mitigate the risk we place considerable emphasis on development of leadership skills and on building employee motivation.
- A.
I, II, III, IV
- B.
II, I, IV, III
- C.
II. I, IV
- D.
IV, I, III
Answer: Option C
Explanation :
Only statements II or III can serve as the introductory statements but since statement III is not present in any of the answer options as the introductory statement, we are compelled to choose statement II as the introductory statement. Therefore, we can eliminate options 1 and 4.
The gist of statement II is that according to the author, other companies look to the author’s company “as a hunting ground for talent.”
Statements I and IV will follow statement II since they describe the actions taken by the company to minimize the risk of high employee attrition. Statement I will follow II with one action the company has taken, namely “ESOPs”. Statement IV, with the word, “further” will follow statement I detailing some other actions taken by the company to “mitigate the risk” - “development of leadership skills” and building “employee motivation”.
Statements II, I and IV in that order constitute a coherent paragraph. Statement III with its monologue on the growth of the Indian economy leading to an increased requirement for talented managers is superfluous and can be rendered redundant since this statement, if included, would make the paragraph somewhat disjointed. Secondly, it is a generalized statement having no bearing on the other three statements. Therefore, we can eliminate option 2.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
Workspace:
Each of the questions below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.
I. It reverberates throughout the entire Universe. And you are transmitting that frequency with your thoughts!
II. The frequency you transmit reaches beyond cities, beyond cities, beyond countries beyond the world.
III. You are a human transmission tower, and you are more powerful than any television tower created on earth.
IV. Your transmission creates your life and it creates the world.
- A.
IV, I, III, II
- B.
II, IV, III, I
- C.
III, IV, II, I
- D.
I, II, III, IV
Answer: Option C
Explanation :
Statement III is the obvious introductory statement since it introduces the theme of the paragraph, viz. human transmission. Therefore, we can eliminate options 1, 2 and 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
Workspace:
Each of the questions below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.
I. Asian economies will need alternative sources of growth to compensate for the rapid fall in demand from the western markets.
II. But the crisis has exposed the limits of region’s dominant economic- growth model.
III. The export- led model that propelled many Asian economies so effectively for the past 30 years must be adapted to a different global economic context.
IV. Asia is less exposed to the financial turmoil than the west is, because Asian countries responded to the previous decade’s regional crisis by improving their current-account positions, accumulating reserves, and ensuring that their banking systems operated prudently.
- A.
IV, II, I, III
- B.
I, II, III, IV
- C.
III, I, II, IV
- D.
II, III, IV
Answer: Option A
Explanation :
Statement IV is the obvious introductory statement since it highlights the theme of the paragraph, which is how Asia is responding to the current economic crisis. Therefore, we can eliminate options 2, 3 and 4.
Statement II will follow - pointing out how the current crisis has exposed the flaws in the Asian countries’ economic growth model.
Statement I details what Asia needs to do- “alternative sources of growth” to compensate for the fall in demand from the West.
Statement III puts the economic model of Asian countries in proper perspective- “the export-led model” of Asian countries must be adapted to a different global context.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Workspace:
Each of the questions below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.
I. The dangers of conflicting irrational majoritarianism with enlightened consensus are, indeed, great in developing democracy.
II. Real democracy is about mediating the popular will through a network of institutional structure and the law of the land.
III. While law making and governance are meant to articulate the latter, the judiciary is supposed to protect the former from any kind of excess that might occur, unwittingly or otherwise, in the conduct of legislative and governmental functions.
IV. The principle of separation of powers is meant to embody a desirable tension between individual rights and social consensus.
- A.
I, II, III, IV
- B.
II, I, III, IV
- C.
IV, III, I, II
- D.
II, III, IV
Answer: Option C
Explanation :
Statements IV and III are a pair. The “latter” in statement III refers to “social consensus” in statement IV while the “former” in III refers to “individual rights” in statement IV. Therefore, options 1, 2 and 4 are eliminated.
Statement III mentions that the judiciary is meant to secure and protect the individual rights for the individual against the excesses of legislative and governmental functions. Where do the excesses occur? This is answered by statement I with the phrase“ irrational majoritarianism”-in other words, “irrational majoritianism” poses a threat to “enlightened consensus” and thereby to the development of democracy- as mentioned in statement I.
Statement II effectively concludes the paragraph by defining “Real democracy”- viz. mediating the popular will- not necessarily the will of the majority- with the help of institutions and laws.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
Workspace:
Each of the questions below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.
I. First may be necessary for immediate relief.
II. However, to cure the problem from the root the treatment at the elemental level is a must.
III. Therefore synergy of modern medical science and ancient Indian wisdom is in the interest of humanity.
IV. Allopathic treatment is symptomatic while Ayurveda treats at an elemental level.
- A.
IV, II, I, III
- B.
IV, I, II, III
- C.
IV, III, II
- D.
II, IV, III
Answer: Option B
Explanation :
Statement IV introduces the theme of the paragraph, which is allopathic treatment versus Ayurveda. We can eliminate option 4.
Statements I and II are a pair. While the first, Allopathy, provides immediate relief, the second, Ayurveda, cures the problem from the root. We can eliminate options 1 and 3.
Statement III provides a very effective conclusion by highlighting the merits of synergizing these two distinct branches of medicine.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Workspace:
Each of the questions below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.
I. He somehow knew he would find what he was looking for. So, with missionary zeal, he started to climb.
II. So instead, for perhaps the first in his life he shed the shackles of reason and placed his trust in his intuition.
III. At first he thought about hiring a Sherpa guide to aid him in his climb through the mountains, but, for some strange reason, his instincts told him this was one journey he would have to make alone.
IV. The next morning, as the first rays of the Indian sun danced along the colorful horizon, Julian set out his trek to the lost land of Savana.
- A.
I, II, III, IV
- B.
I, III, II, IV
- C.
III, IV, I, II
- D.
IV, III, II, I
Answer: Option D
Explanation :
Statement IV mentions the protagonist of the paragraph- Julian. Therefore it can serve as an effective introductory statement. We can eliminate options 1, 2 and 3.
Statement III will follow since it begins with the phrase, “At first” referring to a decision that Julian wanted to take while setting out to trek to Savana.
The word “instincts” in statement III logically connects it to statement II which refers to Julian placing “his trust in his intuition”, or instincts.
Statement I concludes the paragraph by stating that Julian began his trek, by climbing.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Workspace: