Discussion

Explanation:

Let the loss incurred by Raj in first year = P%

∴ Amount remaining after 1st year = 10,0001-P100 > 5,000   …(1)

Now the percentage growth next year = 5P%

∴ Amount after 2 years = 10,0001-P1001+5P100

Overall growth after 2 years is 35%, hence amount after 2 years should be 10,000 × 1.35

⇒ 10,0001-P1001+5P100 = 10,000 × 1.35

⇒ 10000 – 5P2 + 400P = 13500

⇒ 5P2 - 400P + 3500 = 0

⇒ P2 – 80P + 700 = 0

⇒ P = 10% or 70%.

P cannot be 70% since amount remaining after 1st year has to be greater than 5000 [from (1)]

∴ P = 10%

Hence, option (a).

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